Rome renamed its administrative province, Palestina that included parts of Israel, Palestina, Jordan, Lebanon, and Syria in the second century AD long after Jesus died. Rome used administrative provinces and unless one is going to argue that present day Lebanon and Jordan belong to the Palestinians, any attempt to link the term used by Rome to the people known as Palestinians today is huge stretch and a lie.
Modern day Palestinians are not ethnically Semites, but rather a blend of Arabs, Turks, Egyptians, Ottoman Europeans and Semites and so there is no historical tie to the land as Palestinians, other than the ethnicity emerged in what was the administrative province of the Ottoman Turks called Palestine.
Prior to naming the area, Palestina, the area Jesus was born in was referred to as Judea (the land of the Jews). King Herod being part Jewish would most likely would have referred to Jesus as a Jew of Judea since that was the name at the time. As an educated man, King Herod would have been smart enough to know that the current name for the land from which Jesus hailed was called Judea and would not have antagonized the Jewish leaders by referring to them as Palestinians. The book of Matthew written after Jesus died, but before the Bar Kokhba Revolt states emphatically...
"Jesus hailed from the Jewish kingdom of Judea (also known as Judah), “the southern province of [historic] Israel.” Matthew painstakingly detailed that Jesus was “born in Bethlehem in Judea” (Matthew 2:1) and that he preached throughout Galilee and Judea (Matthew 19:1). "
Attempting to rewrite history to support a current political narrative is wrong. The most important takeaway is that Judah got its name from being the land of the Jews. Palestine got its name because Rome wanted to create a province less tied to Jewish nationalism and greater than the footprint of what constituted Judah or Israel.
Importantly, Palestinians as an ethnicity or nationality did not exist at the time of Jesus (only being applied more than a century after Jesus's death.
So clearly, based on history, Jews especially those with Semitic ties have the earlier claim to the land. of Israel. Palestinian claims are much more recent as you do point out in your piece noting their relative recent references to the current ethnicity referred to as Palestinian. The problem in your piece is linking the current use of the word to its past use as the "land of the Philistines". That makes zero sense.
The "land of the Philistines" actually represented a small part of the Levant occupied by the Sea Peoples and comprised I believe of 7 cities. The people were defeated and absorbed, but the name stuck around as your early references suggest long after the people for which it was named were gone. So, any linkage to the ancient use of the word and current Palestinians is pure alchemy.
